Many oppressive states (the USSR, Nazi Germany, fascist Italy) have embraced the music of the past, either encouraging composers to write tonal music that uses the forms and expectations of nineteenth century music, or programming primarily older music. But this also presents a bit of a contradiction: communism sees itself as progressive and future-oriented, and Nazi Germany was also looking to the future, aiming aimed to conquer the world for the Aryan race (northern European white people) and establish a thousand year empire. So why might older music styles be useful for these states? Could they have achieved the same results with newer music? Finish your post with a question.Please only use pdf attached, don’t cite any other source
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